Can metformin's effect be attributed just to its acidic (lactic) effect causing vasodilation and more transcapillary movements of glucose and insulin? Insulin also has one of its action like it.
Can diabetics be treated with insulin sensitizers without hypoglycemia and exogenous insulin? If yes, what are the observations?
No. Within the last year, there have also been data to suggest that metformin increases GLP-1. There is also some additional effect of metformin to decrease peripheral insulin resistance.
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